Yes, the idiomatic use of the word all can mean many things in context... but then does this mean the Bible is never referencing the wooden definition of ALL as "everything it could relate to?"

What is an author to do if they actually want to indicate that they mean the absolute definition of ALL - would not the same words apply then? Yes, we need to read into context, but unlike the Calvinist, we cannot hastily limit a definition of the word based on our presupposition of what we want a passage to say. All doesn't always mean all, but sometimes all does mean all.